14% of SBC pastors are Masons

18% of SBC deacon chairs are Masons

SBC members account for 37% of total Masonic Lodge members in the U.S.

Shocking considering the Masonic Lodge is a cult.

You said "..." so could it possibly be, now that we have the Apostles' words, we need not have additional messages and revelations from the Lord, considering how many claim "thus saith the Lord" these days--some with outrageous claims(give a certain amount of money, etc)? Just asking and considering if this is true or maybe not. Just a question about a thought I had. Thanks."

Your question is answered in the last chapter of the Bible.

"For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book: And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book." Rev.22:18,19

Acts Ch2 proves beyond a shadow of doubt that the tongues were known earthly languages. That is why the Apostle Paul in 1 Cor Ch14 rebukes and corrects the Corinthian christians for the use of tongues in an assembly when nobody can understand it. The tongues in 1 Corinthians are the same tongues as in Acts ch2. There was only one kind of tongues, that is, an earthly language and it's purpose was to preach the gospel to non-believers in their own language so they could understand. Corinth was a city of people of many different tongues (languages).

The tongues-speaking today is not the real tongues or earthly languages of which Acts and Corinthians speaks.

You said "The words "spirit" in the entire discourse of I Cor 12-14 are all interpreted from the same Greek word, "pneuman" (4141 Strong's Ex. Conc.)--which is the Holy Ghost."

Since you are referring to the Greek word for spirit in 1 Cor.12-14, could you also look up a few other places where the word "spirit" is used in small letters and tell me please what Greek word is used and what it means?

"For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man..." 1 Cor.2:11
What Greek word is used for spirit in this phrase "spirit of man"?

"Now we have received, not the spirit of the world..." 1 Cor.2:12

What is the Greek word for spirit in these verses?

Also notice in 1 Cor.12 verses 3,4,7,8,9,11, and vs 13 all use the word "Spirit" with a capital letter. Can you tell me then why do other verses in Ch.14 not used capital letters for the word "spirit"?

Is the Greek word "pneuman", which you referred to, always used only to refer to the Holy Spirit, or is the same Greek word also used to refer to the spirit of a man or the spirit of the world?

You say "If Jesus words scare you, you need to repent. If they don't scare you, you have a seared conscience."

You said "If Paul is praying with the Spirit and singing with the Spirit—and the Spirit is not the Holy Spirit, what could he possibly be talking about—singing with the spirit and praying with the spirit? He is speaking of the gifts of the Spirit. Do you think he sidestepped for this verse?"

"For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful." 1 Cor.14:14

According to Jamieson, Faussett and Brown's Bible commentary, the word "spirit" in vs 14 refers to Paul's "higher being" or "the instrument of prayer in an unknown tongue". It is not necessarily referring to the Holy Spirit as you implied.

At the time of the Apostles, when tongues speaking (earthly languages) were being spoken in a biblical manner, then of course the gift would have been given by the Holy Spirit. But in this verse Paul is discouraging the use of tongues and the word spirit is referring to his own higher being.
Why would the Holy Spirit be working in a way which the Apostle Paul is discouraging? Vs14 discourages the use of tongues.

Vs 15 would be the same idea.

The word spirit must be referring to Paul's higher being. Otherwise why would it be in small letters?

You said "What interpretation do you place on the difference in praying with the understanding and praying with the Spirit? Why would Paul say He prayed with the understanding if there is no difference?"

"For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.

What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also." 1 Cor.14:15,16

The word spirit here is in small letters. Is this referring to Paul's spirit or the Holy Spirit?

The church must understand what is being prayed in order to receive edification and agree in prayer. How can anyone agree to something which they cannot understand? Others in the meeting cannot be edified by something which they cannot understand.

Matthew Henry says "Children are apt to be struck with novelty and strange appearances. Do not you act like them, and prefer noise and show to worth and substance...Christians should have wisdom and knowledge that are ripe and mature."

You said "The following verse verifies that praying with the Spirit is praying in tongues and in addition confirms singing in the Spirit is Scriptural.

1Co 14:15 What is it then? I will **pray with the spirit**, and I will **pray with the understanding** also: I will **sing with the spirit**, and I will **sing with the understanding** also."

Where does it say anything at all about praying in tongues in this verse? It doesn't!

If you would like to hear a good sermon on a biblical understanding of tongues-speaking, may I suggest you copy and paste the following link:

I agree with most of what you say dear brother, but just wanted to make a brief comment. I agree there are certain doctrines which may be more easily taught with the Epistles, but I believe the Gospels are just as important as the rest of the Scriptures. The gospels have the very words of Jesus, His parables and teachings, and the eyewitness accounts of Jesus' miracles and resurrection, etc. I would not say the gospels are less significant than the Epistles. In fact I would say some central doctrines are taught in the Gospels. "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect throughly furnished unto all good works." 2 Tim. 3:16,17

"I believe justification by faith apart from works is a most wholesome and true doctrine. "We maintain a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law."

Amen!!

I took the time to read through the sermon this morning and found it beneficial. Blessings.

There is a good printed sermon on Jusfication which can be read at:

Thanks for that info. Justification by faith is a foundational teaching in the Bible. The person has eternal life at the moment he believes and is justified forever. Those that make justification an ongoing process, similar to Roman Catholicism, are teaching a heresy. One needs to get this all important doctrine straight.

You said to Alan H "Your doctrine of justification and sanctification is from the Westminister Confession, and anyone who disagrees with it is considered a heretic. Sanctification as a separate work of grace apart from justification is a matter of Scriptural interpretation."

May I say the doctrine of justification is not just in the Westminister Confession; it is taught in Romans Chap.3,4, and 5 and Gal. Chap.2,3, and 4.

It was a cornerstone of the Reformation and is what separates true christian believers and churches from false heretical churches.

Your doctrine of mixing justification with ongoing sanctification in effect denies the biblical doctrine of justification. That is why it is heresy. You are adding works to salvation by faith.

Your doctrine is in agreement with the Roman Catholic Council of Trent's anathemas which are diametrically opposed to the central teaching of the Reformation and true Protestant churches and confessions.

Your post sounds quite anti-Semite in tone. I think you need to study the Scriptures concerning what God has said about Israel and do some soul searching. You must have to reject a large portion of the Bible to come to the conclusions you have come to.

Israel is God's original chosen people. Christ was a Jew. Many prophecies in the Old Testament relating to Israel are yet to be fulfilled.

Concerning the Jew, God said "And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed." Genesis 12:3

This verse could not be plainer. If you want the blessing of God on your life, you MUST bless Israel, and not curse it with hatred.

In view of 2000 years of anti-Semitism and hatred for the Jews by the so-called christian world, it is time for the christians to do what they can to make amends.

A good book I can recommend is Jerusalem Countdown by John Hagee. He gives an excellent overview of the history of the whole situation and examines the current affairs relating to Israel and the Bible.

Does the limited atonement doctrine say the Lord died only for the elect?

Could you tell me how Reformed people interpret 2 Peter 2:1 with reference to the part "the Lord that bought them"? If the false teachers were not christians, then why would it say "the Lord that bought them" unless the correct interpretation is that the Lord died for everyone?